could somone tell me...

"Figure shows the use of static NAT translation. The router will translate packets from host 10.1.1.2 to a source address of 192.168.1.2."


.....why a private address(192.168.....) is used as a source address..this is ccna 4 and my instuctor could not explain :shock: ..of course it could be yet another mistake :roll:

Although NAT translation is commonly used to map public IP addresses to private ones and vice versa, there is no reason why you cannot have mappings between private IPs. As long as the respective IPs match the networks on either router interface then there is no reason why it should not work.

well basically NAT is a means of covering the source ip address with a front-end ip address that is accessible be it private or public ip addresses, in this way, security is implemented. since with your example, the NAT scheme was applied to a private ip address and masking it with another private ip address, it clearly does not violate the rules of NAT thus making it a legal one .
you may think of it as a private NAT implementation so to speak, wherein it could be implemented within a single LAN separated probably by vlans in different networks.

should've pointed out the 192.168.x.x was on the internet side of the gateway...so how is stuff going to be routed back ? thanks for any comments from learned members..sounds like a court case

Is it possible that the 192.168.x.x network was connected to the internet through yet another router?

probably...or it could be the address of the internal interface of the network router linking it to the WAN interface.

although, i'm still wondering how would a private ip address be routed across the internet if it was on the internet side of the gateway as rickardo claims...